小亮的解答是:原式=a+=a+1-a=1.
小芳的解答是:原式=a+=a-(1-a)=2a-1=2×1000-1=1999.
因?yàn)?img class="mathml" src="http://math.21cnjy.com/MathMLToImage?mml=%3Cmath+xmlns%3D%22http%3A%2F%2Fwww.w3.org%2F1998%2FMath%2FMathML%22%3E%3Cmn%3E%28%3C%2Fmn%3E%3Cmsqrt%3E%3Cmrow%3E%3Cmn%3E2%3C%2Fmn%3E%3C%2Fmrow%3E%3C%2Fmsqrt%3E%3Cmo%3E%2B%3C%2Fmo%3E%3Cmn%3E1%3C%2Fmn%3E%3Cmsup%3E%3Cmrow%3E%3Cmn%3E%29%3C%2Fmn%3E%3C%2Fmrow%3E%3Cmrow%3E%3Cmn%3E2%3C%2Fmn%3E%3C%2Fmrow%3E%3C%2Fmsup%3E%3Cmo%3E%3D%3C%2Fmo%3E%3Cmn%3E3%3C%2Fmn%3E%3Cmo%3E%2B%3C%2Fmo%3E%3Cmn%3E2%3C%2Fmn%3E%3Cmsqrt%3E%3Cmrow%3E%3Cmn%3E2%3C%2Fmn%3E%3C%2Fmrow%3E%3C%2Fmsqrt%3E%3C%2Fmath%3E" style="max-width:100%;vertical-align: middle;"> , 所以因?yàn)?img class="mathml" src="http://math.21cnjy.com/MathMLToImage?mml=%3Cmath+xmlns%3D%22http%3A%2F%2Fwww.w3.org%2F1998%2FMath%2FMathML%22%3E%3Cmn%3E%28%3C%2Fmn%3E%3Cmn%3E2%3C%2Fmn%3E%3Cmo%3E%E2%88%92%3C%2Fmo%3E%3Cmsqrt%3E%3Cmrow%3E%3Cmn%3E3%3C%2Fmn%3E%3C%2Fmrow%3E%3C%2Fmsqrt%3E%3Cmsup%3E%3Cmrow%3E%3Cmn%3E%29%3C%2Fmn%3E%3C%2Fmrow%3E%3Cmrow%3E%3Cmn%3E2%3C%2Fmn%3E%3C%2Fmrow%3E%3C%2Fmsup%3E%3Cmo%3E%3D%3C%2Fmo%3E%3Cmn%3E7%3C%2Fmn%3E%3Cmo%3E%E2%88%92%3C%2Fmo%3E%3Cmn%3E4%3C%2Fmn%3E%3Cmsqrt%3E%3Cmrow%3E%3Cmn%3E3%3C%2Fmn%3E%3C%2Fmrow%3E%3C%2Fmsqrt%3E%3C%2Fmath%3E" style="max-width:100%;vertical-align: middle;"> , 所以請(qǐng)你根據(jù)以上規(guī)律,結(jié)合你的經(jīng)驗(yàn)化簡(jiǎn)下列各式:
題目:若代數(shù)式 的值是1,求 的取值范圍.
解:原式 ,
當(dāng) 時(shí),原式 ,解得 (舍去);
當(dāng) 時(shí),原式 ,符合條件;
當(dāng) 時(shí),原式 ,解得 (舍去);
所以, 的取值范圍是 .
請(qǐng)你根據(jù)小明的做法,解答下列問(wèn)題: